onioncheese4 onioncheese4
  • 03-09-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why is 4 + (-3) equal to 1?

Respuesta :

agreenlee
agreenlee agreenlee
  • 03-09-2020
This is because 4+(-3) is also 4-3. So that equals 1
Answer Link
raushan197308
raushan197308 raushan197308
  • 03-09-2020

Step-by-step explanation:

4+(-3)=1

because when you open brackets + and - will be -, so 4-3=1

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

The supreme court has ruled that classifications based on gender are subject to a lower level of scrutiny than classifications based on race. true or false
which of the following best describes gravitya molecular pull a description of massa fundamental forcea kind of acceleration
Who were two English Protestant groups that came to America seeking true religious freedom? Puritans Pilgrims Buddists Catholics Anglicans
Choose the correct translation for the following statement it is at most ten
What do the american cancer society, american health association and the american lung association all have in common
Los niños le dan las flores ________. (1 point) Question 8 options: 1) a ellos 2) a mí 3) a la mamá 4) a nosotros
An investment is currently worth 2.125×104 dollars . Ten years ago, the investment was worth ​ 1.25×103 ​ dollars. How many times greater is the value of the
How does Calling The hunt for Tutsis a " sports event" convey the tone of the narrative of the narrative
Solve for x. y=7x−7z−9
Please help right now!!! MARK BRAINLIEST