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  • 04-04-2016
  • English
contestada

Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period.
a. True
b. False

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Аноним Аноним
  • 13-04-2016
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "False." Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period. The statement that is shown above is not true to Shakespeare's 1.
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