stotch9021 stotch9021

02-04-2020
History

contestada

1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to
read or write?

Respuesta :

daryionmct daryionmct

02-04-2020

Answer:

Only Very High Class men were educated.

Explanation:

Answer Link

02-04-2020

that means Europe doesn’t have a very high “literacy rate” idk if that helped but it’s true :) sorry ,,

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Chief _________________ was killed by his own people for giving away their lands without their approval.

the coach randomly selects 3 swimmers from a team of 8. to swim in a heat. What is the probability she will choose the three strongest swimmers?

What is employs?A.) noun B.) verbC.) adjectiveD.) other

Someone who believes in "traditional" values, limited government, & personal responsibility could best be described as a... * A Conservative B Liberal C Com

"An alpha particle (He2+) with a velocity of 2.6x106m/scrosses a uniform magnetic field at an angle of 37.0°to the field lines and experiences a magnetic force

When an author gives objects, concepts or animals human characteristics, emotions or abilities, that's personification. Which of the following is an example of

If 5 pounds of grapes costs $1.37, how much would 12 pounds of grapes cost?

How would you write 0.7 as a fraction

a force is something that causes change in motion. what provides the force that made the cart speed up?

Someone help me please