Respuesta :

MathG33k
No because mixed numbers need atleast a one and a fraction to be a mixed number. But if there was a fraction then it couldn't equal two, because of the 1's
calculista

Let

[tex]x=3\frac{1}{2} \\ \\ y=-1\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Find the sum of the mixed numbers x and y

[tex](x+y)=3\frac{1}{2}+(-1\frac{1}{2})\\ \\(x+y)=2[/tex]

therefore

the answer is

Yes, the sum of two mixed numbers be equal to [tex]2[/tex], only if you include a negative mixed number