simplymariex simplymariex
  • 02-04-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is it true that since sin2x + cos2x = 1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain your answer.

Respuesta :

jimthompson5910 jimthompson5910
  • 02-04-2018
No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt(2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use; however, x = 0 or x = pi/2 radians will actually be bad values to pick so avoid those.


Answer Link

Otras preguntas

The tropical climate zone is in which two states?
What type of reaction occurs when you strike a match?
Wanda, the Channel 1 weather person, said there was a 30% chance of rain on Saturday and a 30% chance of rain on Sunday. Should Wanda be fired? HELP PLEASE
What is the answer to split 56 in the ratio of 3:4
how can you simplify 24                                ---                                30
in what situation does friction make an object change its shape
what is a similar quote for Romeo and Juliet "my bounty is as boundless as the sea . My love as deep , the more i give to thee , the more i have , for both are
What is '7b-2b+3-1' ? Need working and it's equations!!
Convert 79 oz to _____ g Round answer to the nearest whole gram.
Why did Allies plan to land in Normandy and not somewhere else?